Proof George Floyd was drugged to death
Floyd had enough fentanyl (11 ng/ml) to make him pass out! He also had more than the therapeutic dose of morphine in his system.
Check this out:
Fentanyl "Overdose results in respiratory depression which is reversible with naloxone. Sudden death can also occur because of cardiac arrest or severe anaphylactic reaction. The estimated lethal dose of fentanyl in humans is 2 mg. The recommended serum concentration for analgesia is 1–2 ng/ml and for anaesthesia it is 10–20 ng/ml. Blood concentrations of approximately 7 ng/ml or greater have been associated with fatalities where poly-substance use was involved. While fatalities have been reported after therapeutic use, many deaths have occurred as a result of the misuse of pharmaceutical products. Both used and unused fentanyl patches have been injected, smoked, snorted or taken orally with fatal consequences."
From the autopsy report:
VI. Toxicology (see attached report for full details; testing performed on antemortem blood specimens collected 5/25/20 at 9:00 p.m. at HHC and on postmortem urine)
A. Blood drug and novel psychoactive substances screens:
1. Fentanyl 11 ng/mL
2. Norfentanyl 5.6 ng/mL
3. 4-ANPP 0.65 ng/mL
4. Methamphetamine 19 ng/mL
5. 11-Hydroxy Delta-9 THC 1.2 ng/mL;
Delta-9 Carboxy THC 42 ng/mL; Delta-9 THC 2.9 ng/mL
6. Cotinine positive
7. Caffeine positive
B. Blood volatiles: negative for ethanol, methanol, isopropanol, or acetone
C. Urine drug screen: presumptive positive for cannabinoids, amphetamines, and fentanyl/metabolite
D. Urine drug screen confirmation: morphine (free) 86 ng/mL
He had 11 ng/ml of fentanyl in his system. He also had 86 ng/ml of morphine in his system.
The therapeutic range for morphine is 65-80 ng/ml. Thus he had over the therapeutic range for that drug as well.
The reasonable conclusion is that George Floyd had enough drugs in his system to make him pass out and probably die, regardless of what the cop did.
He had enough fentanyl to make him pass out and he also had the morphine and cannabinoids on top of that. As the source says "Blood concentrations of approximately 7 ng/ml or greater have been associated with fatalities where poly-substance use was involved."
Questions this raises:
Did the cop actually kill him or did the drugs do it?
Was the cop just holding him down until he passed out?
Who administered the drugs? Was it voluntary or forced on him?
Why didn't they do any medical intervention? Did they think he was just harmlessly passed out and would wake up later and thus would be harmed by CPR etc? Was it an act?
Why is no-one talking about this?